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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q39-Q44):

NEW QUESTION # 39
What are some of the properties of Bottom-Up KRIs?

A. Selected by local management, based on key controls or weaknesses identified by audit reports, reported on quarterly.
B. Seated by senior management: tied to internal loss events at the legal entity, country, business and / or product level, reported.
daily, weekly or monthly.
C. Selected by local management: tied to internal loss events at the legal entity, country, business and / or product level, reported daily, weekly or monthly.
D. Are not used due to changes in regulations.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Definition of Bottom-Up KRIs
Bottom-Up Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) are identified at the operational level, focusing on localized risks within business units.
They are tied to actual internal loss events and reported frequently (daily, weekly, or monthly) to capture ongoing trends.
Key Properties of Bottom-Up KRIs
Selected by local management → Ensures relevance to specific business areas.
Tied to internal loss events → Helps in tracking risk patterns within specific legal entities, countries, or business units.
Reported frequently → Allows for timely risk detection and mitigation.
Why Answer D is Correct
Bottom-up KRIs focus on localized risk exposure and are monitored frequently to track operational changes.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Seated by senior management: tied to internal loss events at the legal entity, country, business, and/or product level, reported daily, weekly, or monthly.
Incorrect - Senior management sets top-down KRIs, while bottom-up KRIs are managed locally.
B . Selected by local management, based on key controls or weaknesses identified by audit reports, reported quarterly.
Incorrect - While audit reports are useful, bottom-up KRIs are based on loss events, not just audit findings. Quarterly reporting is too infrequent.
C . Are not used due to changes in regulations.
Incorrect - Bottom-up KRIs remain essential despite regulatory changes.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Indicator Best Practices
Basel Committee's Risk Measurement and Reporting Guidelines

NEW QUESTION # 40
How should Near Misses and Opportunity Costs be treated within Operational Risk?

A. Ignored.
B. Reported, Recorded and Analyzed, Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
C. Recorded and Analyzed. Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
D. Reported. Recorded and Analyzed. Not Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Near Misses in Operational Risk
A near miss is an event that could have led to a loss but was avoided or mitigated before actual financial impact occurred.
PRMIA emphasizes that near misses should be reported, recorded, and analyzed because they provide valuable insights into potential vulnerabilities in risk controls.
However, since they did not result in actual financial losses, they are not included in the calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Opportunity Costs in Operational Risk
Opportunity costs refer to the loss of potential gains due to missed strategic opportunities.
These are not directly quantifiable as operational risk losses and are not included in Operational Risk Capital calculations.
PRMIA's Operational Risk Framework states that operational risk is about actual losses rather than theoretical costs.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Ignored.
Incorrect - Near misses and opportunity costs provide valuable insights into operational risk, so they should never be ignored.
B . Recorded and Analyzed. Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Incorrect - While they should be recorded and analyzed, they are not included in Operational Risk Capital calculations because they do not result in actual losses.
D . Reported, Recorded, and Analyzed, Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Incorrect - Reporting, recording, and analysis are correct, but they should not be included in capital calculations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Operational Risk Management Standards - Defines near misses and opportunity costs.
Basel II & III Operational Risk Framework - Outlines the principles of operational risk capital calculations.

NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following is not an action available to management and the governing body to align the strategy with Risk Capacity.

A. Improve quality of risks - pursue lower rewarding risks with better prospects.
B. Reduce scale of risks - shrink balance sheet or activity levels.
C. Reduce retained earning - by increasing dividends in order to return funds to investors and improve reputation.
D. Improve retained earnings - by increasing net income or reducing dividends in order to increase risk capacity.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Step 1: Aligning Strategy with Risk Capacity
Risk capacity is the maximum level of risk a firm can bear based on financial resources, earnings, and capital structure.
Management can adjust risk capacity by modifying risk exposure, balance sheet size, or earnings retention.
Step 2: Why Option C Is Incorrect
Increasing dividends reduces retained earnings, which lowers capital reserves and reduces risk capacity.
Firms seeking to improve risk capacity should retain earnings, not distribute them.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Correct
Option A ("Reduce scale of risks") → Correct as reducing balance sheet size lowers risk exposure.
Option B ("Improve quality of risks") → Correct as taking on lower-risk assets improves stability.
Option D ("Improve retained earnings") → Correct as more capital increases risk capacity.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Capital Management Framework - Defines risk capacity and earnings retention strategies.
Basel III Capital Standards - Stresses retained earnings as a key factor in risk capacity.
Final Conclusion:
Reducing retained earnings through dividends weakens risk capacity, making Option C the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 42
For the Barings case study, segregation of duties was an issue. How did this present itself in this case?

A. A trader was responsible for managing the back-office.
B. A trader was responsible for managing the front-office.
C. A risk manager was responsible for managing the back-office
D. A trader was responsible for managing the expense account.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Background of the Barings Case Study
Nick Leeson, a trader at Barings Bank, caused the collapse of the institution due to unauthorized trading in derivatives.
A critical failure was the lack of segregation of duties, allowing Leeson to both execute trades (front-office) and oversee trade settlement (back-office).
How Segregation of Duties Failed
Proper segregation of duties ensures that no single individual has unchecked control over trading and settlement.
Leeson was responsible for both trading (front-office) and settlement (back-office), meaning he could hide losses without detection.
Why Answer A is Correct
A trader (Leeson) should never have been managing back-office functions.
His dual role allowed him to manipulate records and bypass controls, leading to $1.3 billion in losses and the bank's collapse.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
B . A trader was responsible for managing the front-office.
Incorrect - Traders are supposed to manage the front-office; the issue was their involvement in back-office functions.
C . A risk manager was responsible for managing the back-office.
Incorrect - The issue was lack of oversight on the trader, not risk managers handling back-office duties.
D . A trader was responsible for managing the expense account.
Incorrect - The main issue was the trader's control over trade settlement, not expense accounts.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Case Study on Barings Bank Collapse
Basel Principles on Segregation of Duties in Risk Management

NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the below is a definition of climate risk?

A. Climate risk refers to change in the business climate during a recession.
B. Climate risk refers to the growing impacts that businesses and our overall society may face due to climate change.
C. Climate risk has been moved out of all risk taxonomies due to international agreement.
D. Climate risk refers to the growing impacts of credit risk on the business environment.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Step 1: Definition of Climate Risk
PRMIA and global financial regulators define climate risk as the financial, operational, and societal risks arising from climate change.
Climate risks impact businesses through physical risks (e.g., floods, wildfires) and transition risks (e.g., regulatory changes, carbon pricing).
Step 2: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Climate risk has been moved out of all risk taxonomies due to international agreement") Incorrect because climate risk is now a central part of risk taxonomies, as emphasized by PRMIA, Basel III, and TCFD.
Option B ("Climate risk refers to the growing impacts of credit risk on the business environment") Incorrect because credit risk is just one aspect of climate risk, not the full definition.
Option C ("Climate risk refers to change in the business climate during a recession") Incorrect because climate risk is about environmental change, not economic cycles.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Climate Risk Guidelines - Defines climate risk as a financial and societal risk due to climate change.
TCFD (Task Force on Climate-Related Financial Disclosures) - Outlines regulatory expectations for climate risk management.
Final Conclusion:
Climate risk involves physical and transition risks from climate change, making Option D the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 44
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